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Re: Agnosphytis Etymology

> I think the -gn- sound- which is "impossible" in english(I mean
> to do the same way we do it, because it's not contemplated by your
> pronounciation rules,IINM) - may be best approached by something like
> the -nyo- portion in e.g. canyon, even if it's still different.

This pronounciation of gn is peculiar to (some or all?) Romance languages
and has AFAIK never existed in Greek (or Latin as long as it could be called

What does IINM mean?

> It may well be like this: Ah-nyos-fit-is ( does FYE sound like "fie"?  in
> this case it would not be ok)

Well, originally, y was neither an English long i (I, eye...) nor an Italian
i, it was an ü (and is pronounced that way -- French u, basically -- in
German and AFAIK various scandinavian languages; it was also used for old
Anglo-Saxon). Apparently it has become an i in today's Greek, though.

While I'm already at being awfully picky I could also mention that the Greek
ph was originally just that, an aspirated p as every English p, which is why
the Romans transcribed it that way. Only later it became f... I don't know
when, though. Enough of linguistic cans of nematomorphs for today. :-)