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Re: Cómo se dice ther[o]pod y synapsid e

I never said it doesn't make sense, only that that's how it is. Or is someone else requiring everyone to speak the same way? For Pete's sake, how does it make sense for people who think English is a hieroglyphic language to require everyone throughout the entire former Spanish empire to speak alike.

You know, Latin should explain the v's become w's as well; actually it's the other way around, but like the dj sound that only shows up in Argentina and Chile, it seems to be a much more modern change. Of course, it's possible one Spanish dialect that spoke that way went to Argentina and Chile, and then on the mainland, they moved on - which is why my part of the map retains the Latin w for v in the middle of the word. In my part of the map they settled before 1500, and then little areas remained isolated.

I had a teacher tell me that when the letters are rolled who knows what they turn into. I really suspect that certain weak consonants acquire a variety of sounds due to teh Ferengi Latin accent. You know, like on Star Trek. Since ancient Rome everyone in Rome, Italy and Spain, and throughout the entire Spanish empire, have always spoken exactly like Ferengi (and acted pretty much like Ferengi too). Only in Mexico and the Southwestern U.S. is that not so. That Ferengi lilt will do mean things to weak consonants.

Dora Smith
Austin, TX

----- Original Message ----- From: "David Marjanovic" <david.marjanovic@gmx.at>
To: "DML" <dinosaur@usc.edu>
Sent: Saturday, April 17, 2010 4:41 AM
Subject: Re: Cómo se dice ther[o]pod y synapsid e

 It also makes sense if you know a little bit of the history of

 1) <j> starts off in Latin as representing the sound [j] as in "yam"
the ends of words.